It fits me to write and re post again my opposition over their arguments
about Jesus' I AM.
he said:
[Defenders of Christ-is-God theology cite John 8:58 as one of their biblical bases in proving their belief that Jesus Christ is God. Although there is no explicit statement from Christ in this verse that He is God, His statement is being understood by those who believe in His alleged deity as an indication and affirmation of His divinity. Why did they come up with this line of reasoning – that Jesus is God – simply because Christ uttered, “I AM”?]
Jesus version of "I am" was in reference to this phrase "before Abraham was, I am"
how can we deny his remark which is in reference to his previous existence
way back to the time of Abraham?
he made a numerous false assertions about this phrase.
There was only one voice being heard in the time of Abraham and that voice came from God.
however, the word God in Hebrew is Elohim, a collective noun for Eloah which is in singular form.
Moses chose to write Elohim to allay proof that God is not a one individual God as he is trying to assert here.
John, the disciple had it to describe the very exact position that Jesus had assume.
-In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God.
the title Word can be translated as Speaker or a Spokesman of the family of God.
the role of this speaker can liken to the congress where a group of lawmakers must vote a one speaker who can speak on behalf of their group.
so we can exactly know what was the title "word" mean to us according to the bible.
Jesus was made a speaker by God the father to deliver his purpose to mankind.
"And the Father who sent me has himself testified
concerning me. You have never heard his voice
nor seen his form "
"YOU HAVE NEVER HEARD HIS VOICE!"
if the father has not been heard ever since then who was this a lone voice in the time of Abraham?
the answer is:
“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I AM ! ”
gusto ko lang mag tanong sa juan 1:1
ReplyDeletebakit sa juan 1:1b definite ho
theon?
pro bakit sa juan 1:1c indefinite theos?
mayron bang pagkakaiba sa juan 1:1b kay sa juan 1:1c?
Dear, it had been Jesus all the way through from the creation and to the salvation. since God father is too holy it was Jesus who always spoke with the humans and as a mother he represents she always with her child all the time protecting it from harm as well as nurturing care.
Deleteso ano ang version mo kpg ito ay definite or indefinite? lht ng translation bear the same statement even without this connotation that Jesus was identified as the Word and that he co existed with the father. nothing else.
Deletethe role of the father was to give order and the role of the speaker is to speak on behalf of the father.
so it's like Ford manufactured his own car. but in reality his employees were the ones responsible for the produced.
this is what happen to the creation that the jews perceived that it was the father who created, but based on John account it happened to be Jesus all the way through who was with the father and both belonged to the God family. anything contrary to their set up came from the devil.